Mean Value Theorem (MVT)

Mean value Theorem

Let f:[a,b]→R be continuous on [a,b] and differentiable on at least on (a,b). Then ∃c∈(a,b) such that f′(c)=f(b)−f(a)b−a.

Proof

Create the function h(x) defined as:

h(x)=f(a)+f(b)−f(a)b−a(x−a)

(you can think of h as the secant line between a,b). Notice that h is differentiable by Algebraic Differentiability Theorem, where:

Then for x∈[a,b] define:

g(x)=f(x)−h(x)

Then g(a)=0=g(b) so by Rolle's Theorem (Baby MVT) then ∃c∈(a,b) such that g′(c)=0, namely:

g′(c)=0=f′(c)−h′(c)=f′(c)−f(b)−f(a)b−a⇒f′(c)=f(b)−f(a)b−a

as desired.

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What's cool here is that for:

f′(c)=f(b)−f(a)b−a

on the RHS we only have a constant, but on the left hand side we have information about f′(c). Thinking, we could try different a,b values to learn more information about f′ at points within those intervals (however, you don't know the exact value of c though).

Let's apply the MVT!

Examples

Let f be differentiable on the interval I. If f′(x)=0 for all x∈I then x is constant. We use this idea of anti-derivation all the time, but using the Mean Value Theorem (MVT) we get that for free.

Proof

Take any x1,x2∈I and WLOG x1<x2. Now since f is differentiable on I then it satisfies the properties for Mean Value Theorem (MVT). As such then ∃c∈[x1,x2] such that:

f′(c)=f(x2)−f(x1)x2−x1

But we know that f′(c)=0 (per our given) so then:

f(x2)−f(x1)=0⇒f(x2)=f(x1)

so since x1,x2 were arbitrary then all points of the function must be equal, so f is constant.

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See this again in Derivative is Zero Implies Constant Function.