Mean Value Theorem (MVT)

Mean value Theorem

Let f:[a,b]R be continuous on [a,b] and differentiable on at least on (a,b). Then c(a,b) such that f(c)=f(b)f(a)ba.

Proof

Create the function h(x) defined as:

h(x)=f(a)+f(b)f(a)ba(xa)

(you can think of h as the secant line between a,b). Notice that h is differentiable by Algebraic Differentiability Theorem, where:

Then for x[a,b] define:

g(x)=f(x)h(x)

Then g(a)=0=g(b) so by Rolle's Theorem (Baby MVT) then c(a,b) such that g(c)=0, namely:

g(c)=0=f(c)h(c)=f(c)f(b)f(a)baf(c)=f(b)f(a)ba

as desired.

What's cool here is that for:

f(c)=f(b)f(a)ba

on the RHS we only have a constant, but on the left hand side we have information about f(c). Thinking, we could try different a,b values to learn more information about f at points within those intervals (however, you don't know the exact value of c though).

Let's apply the MVT!

Examples

Let f be differentiable on the interval I. If f(x)=0 for all xI then x is constant. We use this idea of anti-derivation all the time, but using the Mean Value Theorem (MVT) we get that for free.

Proof

Take any x1,x2I and WLOG x1<x2. Now since f is differentiable on I then it satisfies the properties for Mean Value Theorem (MVT). As such then c[x1,x2] such that:

f(c)=f(x2)f(x1)x2x1

But we know that f(c)=0 (per our given) so then:

f(x2)f(x1)=0f(x2)=f(x1)

so since x1,x2 were arbitrary then all points of the function must be equal, so f is constant.

See this again in Derivative is Zero Implies Constant Function.