32 Cosets and Lagrange's Theorem

1

Question

Which of the following are permissible Order (Groups) for Subgroups of a Group of order 120: 1, 2, 5, 7, 9, 15, 60, 240?

Proof

Using Lagrange's Divisibility Theorem of Order of Subgroups, we must have |H| divide |G|=120. Thus, any candidate must be a factor of 120. That means that the follow work/don't work as 120=1⋅23⋅3⋅5:

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4

Question

Show that if |G|=pq for some primes p,q (not necessarily distinct) then either G is an Abelian Group or Z(G)=1 (see Center).

Proof

Say |G|=pq. If Z(G)=1 then we are done so assume Z(G)≠1. Notice that since Z(G)≠1 then ∃z∈Z(G) where z is not the identity. Then consider the subgroup ⟨z⟩. Notice it's not the identity so then it has some order |⟨z⟩|=n>1.

Now by Lagrange's Divisibility Theorem of Order of Subgroups, then |⟨z⟩| divides |G|=pq. But since these are prime factors then either |⟨z⟩|=p or |⟨z⟩|=q. Without loss of generality, say |⟨z⟩|=p. Since this is prime, then by Prime Order Groups are Cyclic and Z_p then it is cyclic. Furthermore we know that since |GZ(G)|=|G||Z(G)|=pqp=q is prime (for more see Index (Groups)) then it itself is cyclic, so then by 31 Quotient Groups and Homomorphisms#36 then G is abelian.

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5

Question

Let H≤G (see Subgroup) and fix some element g∈G.
a. Prove that gHg−1≤G and |gHg−1|=|H| (see Order (Groups))
b. Deduce that if n∈Z+ and H is the unique subgroup of G of order n then H⊴G.

Proof

a. To show gHg−1≤G, clearly it's already a subset. Let h1,h2∈gHg−1, so then h1=gh1′g−1 and h2=gh2′g−1. We want to show that h1h2−1∈gHg−1:

h1h2−1∈gHg−1⟺∃h∈H(ghg−1=h1h2−1)⟺ghg−1=(gh1′g−1)(gh2′g−1)−1⟺ghg−1=(gh1′g−1)(gh2′−1g−1)⟺ghg−1=gh1′h2′−1g−1⟺h=h1′h2′−1

Thus choosing h=h1′h2′−1∈H by H≤G will give us the required condition for gHg−1≤G. To get that the orders are the same, use Lagrange's Divisibility Theorem of Order of Subgroups to get that |gHg−1|=|H| I claim that φ:gHg−1→H such that ghg−1↦h is a bijection:

b. Suppose n∈Z+ where |H|=n. Using (a) then |gHg−1|=|H|=n=|G| for any g∈G. But since H is the unique subgroup and |gHg−1|=|H| then gHg−1=H for all g∈G. This is the Equivalences for Normal Subgroups, so then H⊴G.

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8

Question

Prove that if H,K are finite Subgroups of G whose orders are relatively prime then H∩K=1.

Proof

Let a∈H∩K. Then by Lagrange's Divisibility Theorem of Order of Subgroups then |⟨a⟩| divides |H| and |K|. Now, because |H| and |G| are relatively prime, then |⟨a⟩|=1 (if it wasn't, then they both share some factor, which is composed by some prime). Thus every generator of H∩K is just the identity, so then H∩K={1} and thus |H∩K|=1.

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11

Question

Let H≤K≤G. Prove that |G:H|=|G:K|⋅|K:H| (see Index (Groups)).

Proof

Notice using Lagrange's Divisibility Theorem of Order of Subgroups that |H| divides |K| divides |G| where:

|K|=(# cosets of H in K)|H|=|K:H||H|

similarly:

|G|=|G:K||K|=|G:K||K:H||H|

Thus since |G:H|=|G||H| then:

⇒|G:H|=|G||H|=|G:K||K:H||H||H|=|G:K||K:H|

as desired.

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16

Question

Use Lagrange's Divisibility Theorem of Order of Subgroups in the multiplicative group (ZpZ)× to prove Fermat's Little Theorem: if p is a prime then ap≡amodp for all a∈Z.

Proof

Let p be a prime and a∈Z. Because Prime Order Groups are Cyclic and Z_p then our multiplicative group is a Cyclic Group and of order p−1.

Now if a|p then notice that ap is still a multiple of p (inductively) so then it is equivalent to 0modp, just as described in the theorem.

If instead a∤p then amodp is equivalent to some a′∈(ZpZ)×. Since it is cyclic, then a′≠0 is a valid generator!. Thus it must be order p−1, suggesting that a′p−1=1. Multiplying both sides by a′ gives that a′p≡a′modp. But since amodp≡a′modp then:

ap≡a′p≡a′modp≡amodp

as desired.

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19

Question

Prove that if N is a Normal Subgroup of the finite group G and gcd(|N|,|G:N|)=1 (see Index (Groups)) then N is the unique subgroup of G of order |N|.

Proof

Suppose N⊴G with G being finite. Suppose also gcd(|N|,|G:N|)=1 so they are coprime. That means that |N| and |G||N| are coprime.

We just want to show that any other subgroup N′≤G where |N′|=|N| then N′=N.

Notice then that N′N is a subgroup as N is normal. But then:

|N′N|=|N′||N||N′∩N|=|N|2|N′∩N|

Let k=|N||N′∩N|. Then |N′N|=|N|k. Then:

|G:N′N|=|N′N||G|=|N|2|G||N′∩N|=|N||G|k=|G:N|k

But look! That will contradict our gcd requirements as:

gcd(|N|,|G:N|)=1≠k=gcd(|N′N|,|G:N′N|)

Thus then k=1 per our requirement, but then that means that |N|=|N′∩N|=|N′|=|N′N| but that can only happen if N and N′ are the same.

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22

Question

Use Lagrange's Divisibility Theorem of Order of Subgroups in the multiplicative group (ZnZ)× to prove Euler's Theorem: aφ(n)≡1modn for every a∈Z that's relatively prime to n, where φ denotes the Euler-Totient Function.

Proof

Let a∈Z be relatively prime to n. Consider the subgroup generated by a, namely ⟨a⟩. Then since ⟨a⟩≤G (here use G=(ZnZ)× for simplicity) then by Lagrange's Divisibility Theorem of Order of Subgroups then |⟨a⟩|=|a|=|G|⋅|G:⟨a⟩|.

But here the order of G is actually φ(n), the Euler Totient function, since for any prime p<n then p is an element of G, while any composite number q is made up of multiplicative elements of the primes and thus can be ignored as a unique element. Hence, φ(n)=|G|.

Thus notice:

|a|=φ(n)⋅|G:⟨a⟩|

But since a is relatively prime to n, then it must be a Cyclic Group and thus generate all of G. Thus |a|=φ(n). Thus:

⇒1=|G:⟨a⟩|

Thus then G⟨a⟩={1}. That suggests that |G| is a multiple of |a|, implying that:

a|G|=1⇒aφ(n)=1≡1modn

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23

Question

Determine the last two digits of 33100 using the previous question.

Proof

First let's determine a100mod100. This is done using the previous exercise:

aφ(100)≡1mod100

for any a∈Z relatively prime to 100. Actually using the Euler-Totient Function though:

aφ(100)=a40≡1mod100

For any gcd(a,100)=1, implying that the exponent can be reduced mod 40.

Trying to find 3100mod40, we can do the theorem again using a=3 since it is coprime to 40. Notice that:

3φ(40)≡1mod40

But what is φ(40)? Why it's just 16 (we can look this up, or count the primes ourselves, but φ is also a Homomorphism (or Group Morphism) as the proof indicates). Thus:

316≡1mod40

Thus:

3100≡36⋅16+4≡(1mod40)6⋅34≡34≡81≡1mod40

Thus then:

33100≡31≡3mod100

Thus the last two digits are 03.