32 Cosets and Lagrange's Theorem

1

Question

Which of the following are permissible Order (Groups) for Subgroups of a Group of order 120: 1, 2, 5, 7, 9, 15, 60, 240?

Proof

Using Lagrange's Divisibility Theorem of Order of Subgroups, we must have |H| divide |G|=120. Thus, any candidate must be a factor of 120. That means that the follow work/don't work as 120=12335:

4

Question

Show that if |G|=pq for some primes p,q (not necessarily distinct) then either G is an Abelian Group or Z(G)=1 (see Center).

Proof

Say |G|=pq. If Z(G)=1 then we are done so assume Z(G)1. Notice that since Z(G)1 then zZ(G) where z is not the identity. Then consider the subgroup z. Notice it's not the identity so then it has some order |z|=n>1.

Now by Lagrange's Divisibility Theorem of Order of Subgroups, then |z| divides |G|=pq. But since these are prime factors then either |z|=p or |z|=q. Without loss of generality, say |z|=p. Since this is prime, then by Prime Order Groups are Cyclic and Z_p then it is cyclic. Furthermore we know that since |GZ(G)|=|G||Z(G)|=pqp=q is prime (for more see Index (Groups)) then it itself is cyclic, so then by 31 Quotient Groups and Homomorphisms#36 then G is abelian.

5

Question

Let HG (see Subgroup) and fix some element gG.
a. Prove that gHg1G and |gHg1|=|H| (see Order (Groups))
b. Deduce that if nZ+ and H is the unique subgroup of G of order n then HG.

Proof

a. To show gHg1G, clearly it's already a subset. Let h1,h2gHg1, so then h1=gh1g1 and h2=gh2g1. We want to show that h1h21gHg1:

h1h21gHg1hH(ghg1=h1h21)ghg1=(gh1g1)(gh2g1)1ghg1=(gh1g1)(gh21g1)ghg1=gh1h21g1h=h1h21

Thus choosing h=h1h21H by HG will give us the required condition for gHg1G. To get that the orders are the same, use Lagrange's Divisibility Theorem of Order of Subgroups to get that |gHg1|=|H| I claim that φ:gHg1H such that ghg1h is a bijection:

b. Suppose nZ+ where |H|=n. Using (a) then |gHg1|=|H|=n=|G| for any gG. But since H is the unique subgroup and |gHg1|=|H| then gHg1=H for all gG. This is the Equivalences for Normal Subgroups, so then HG.

8

Question

Prove that if H,K are finite Subgroups of G whose orders are relatively prime then HK=1.

Proof

Let aHK. Then by Lagrange's Divisibility Theorem of Order of Subgroups then |a| divides |H| and |K|. Now, because |H| and |G| are relatively prime, then |a|=1 (if it wasn't, then they both share some factor, which is composed by some prime). Thus every generator of HK is just the identity, so then HK={1} and thus |HK|=1.

11

Question

Let HKG. Prove that |G:H|=|G:K||K:H| (see Index (Groups)).

Proof

Notice using Lagrange's Divisibility Theorem of Order of Subgroups that |H| divides |K| divides |G| where:

|K|=(# cosets of H in K)|H|=|K:H||H|

similarly:

|G|=|G:K||K|=|G:K||K:H||H|

Thus since |G:H|=|G||H| then:

|G:H|=|G||H|=|G:K||K:H||H||H|=|G:K||K:H|

as desired.

16

Question

Use Lagrange's Divisibility Theorem of Order of Subgroups in the multiplicative group (ZpZ)× to prove Fermat's Little Theorem: if p is a prime then apamodp for all aZ.

Proof

Let p be a prime and aZ. Because Prime Order Groups are Cyclic and Z_p then our multiplicative group is a Cyclic Group and of order p1.

Now if a|p then notice that ap is still a multiple of p (inductively) so then it is equivalent to 0modp, just as described in the theorem.

If instead ap then amodp is equivalent to some a(ZpZ)×. Since it is cyclic, then a0 is a valid generator!. Thus it must be order p1, suggesting that ap1=1. Multiplying both sides by a gives that apamodp. But since amodpamodp then:

apapamodpamodp

as desired.

19

Question

Prove that if N is a Normal Subgroup of the finite group G and gcd(|N|,|G:N|)=1 (see Index (Groups)) then N is the unique subgroup of G of order |N|.

Proof

Suppose NG with G being finite. Suppose also gcd(|N|,|G:N|)=1 so they are coprime. That means that |N| and |G||N| are coprime.

We just want to show that any other subgroup NG where |N|=|N| then N=N.

Notice then that NN is a subgroup as N is normal. But then:

|NN|=|N||N||NN|=|N|2|NN|

Let k=|N||NN|. Then |NN|=|N|k. Then:

|G:NN|=|NN||G|=|N|2|G||NN|=|N||G|k=|G:N|k

But look! That will contradict our gcd requirements as:

gcd(|N|,|G:N|)=1k=gcd(|NN|,|G:NN|)

Thus then k=1 per our requirement, but then that means that |N|=|NN|=|N|=|NN| but that can only happen if N and N are the same.

22

Question

Use Lagrange's Divisibility Theorem of Order of Subgroups in the multiplicative group (ZnZ)× to prove Euler's Theorem: aφ(n)1modn for every aZ that's relatively prime to n, where φ denotes the Euler-Totient Function.

Proof

Let aZ be relatively prime to n. Consider the subgroup generated by a, namely a. Then since aG (here use G=(ZnZ)× for simplicity) then by Lagrange's Divisibility Theorem of Order of Subgroups then |a|=|a|=|G||G:a|.

But here the order of G is actually φ(n), the Euler Totient function, since for any prime p<n then p is an element of G, while any composite number q is made up of multiplicative elements of the primes and thus can be ignored as a unique element. Hence, φ(n)=|G|.

Thus notice:

|a|=φ(n)|G:a|

But since a is relatively prime to n, then it must be a Cyclic Group and thus generate all of G. Thus |a|=φ(n). Thus:

1=|G:a|

Thus then Ga={1}. That suggests that |G| is a multiple of |a|, implying that:

a|G|=1aφ(n)=11modn

23

Question

Determine the last two digits of 33100 using the previous question.

Proof

First let's determine a100mod100. This is done using the previous exercise:

aφ(100)1mod100

for any aZ relatively prime to 100. Actually using the Euler-Totient Function though:

aφ(100)=a401mod100

For any gcd(a,100)=1, implying that the exponent can be reduced mod 40.

Trying to find 3100mod40, we can do the theorem again using a=3 since it is coprime to 40. Notice that:

3φ(40)1mod40

But what is φ(40)? Why it's just 16 (we can look this up, or count the primes ourselves, but φ is also a Homomorphism (or Group Morphism) as the proof indicates). Thus:

3161mod40

Thus:

31003616+4(1mod40)63434811mod40

Thus then:

33100313mod100

Thus the last two digits are 03.