where is a subspace of . This is the quotient space.
If we have two affine subsets and , then:
and scalar multiplication over is similarly:
We claimed that these operations allowed to be a vector space, which is verifiable, albeit time consuming. However, we know that it's possible that without having . Namely, see Chapter 3 (cont.) - Products and Quotients of Vector Spaces#^a9c447's proof for this problem.
So what if we have ? If that's the case, then and similarly . If they're equal, then clearly and . As such, then where is some vector. Thus:
Two affine subsets parallel to are equal or disjoint
Suppose is a subspace of and . Then the following are equivalent:
This tells us that affine subsets are either equal, or disjoint. Think of the plane example. If you have two parallel planes, they either don't intersect, or are equal to each other.
The proof of this is pretty easy as shown in the book:
Suppose is a subspace of . The quotient map is the linear map defined by:
for .
Recall that the zero vector for is itself. Namely, if you think of the line of planes in that are parallel to , the only vector that would have:
As such, then is isomorphic to since their dimensions are the same via:
Dimension of a quotient space
Suppose is finite-dimensional and is a subspace of . Then:
Now suppose that . Suppose . Then:
So then, treating like a :
So then any vector in an affine subset, parallel to , has the same image under .
Suppose . Define by:
This map sends pieces to outputs, rather than vectors in to corresponding outputs. Think of a plane through the origin . Say for some transformation . All the other planes don't get mapped to zero, and only the ones that do are . Essentially, the collection of all things mapped to , ie: , is isolated from the other 's, and thus forces to be injective (as any has to get mapped to it's counterpart , as there's no other parts as we isolated the nullspace).